The General Ability Test (GAT) is an important component of the NDA written examination and carries 600 marks. It comprises two sections, namely English and General Knowledge. The English section is of 200 marks while the General Knowledge section is of 400 marks. As GAT is a vast syllabus, aspirants need to practice regularly in order to gain accuracy and speed.
For NDA-2 2026, one must not limit their preparations to very easy questions only. One must prepare in a manner so as to be able to apply the concepts learned in questions that can pertain to grammar, vocabulary, science, history, geography, and general awareness. Practising questions of moderate level can help aspirants get familiarised with different types of problems.
Here are 40 of the most awaited GAT questions, consisting of 20 questions from English and 20 questions from General Knowledge.
English (20 Questions)
Q1. Pick the word closest in definition to “Pragmatic”.
A. Practical
B. Realistic
C. Idealistic
D. Sensible
Answer: A. Realistic
Q2. Pick the word closest in definition to “Obsolete”?
A. Outdated
B. Original
C. Temporary
D. Flexible
Answer: A. Outdated
Q3. Spot the part of the sentence that contains an error:
Neither the commanding officer nor the soldiers were willing to compromise.
A. Neither the commanding officer
B. nor the soldiers
C. was willing to compromise
D. No error
Answer: D. No error
Q4. Select the correct improvement:
Hardly had the troops reached the camp when it started raining.
A. when it started raining
B. then it started raining
C. and it started raining
D. No improvement
Answer: D. No improvement
Q5. Fill in the blank:
The officer insisted ______ reviewing the report before submitting it.
A. to
B. on
C. for
D. at
Answer: B. on
Q6. Choose the word that is spelled correctly.
A. Conscientious
B. Consciencious
C. Conscentious
D. Conscientous
Answer: A. Conscientious
Q7. Choose the correct meaning of the idiom “To weather the storm”.
A. To predict bad weather
B. To avoid responsibility
C. To successfully endure a difficult situation
D. To create a difficult situation
Answer: C. To successfully endure a difficult situation
Q8. Select the correct passive form:
Who permitted you to enter the restricted area?
A. By whom you were given permission to enter the restricted area?
B. By whom were you permitted to enter the restricted area?
C. By whom were you given permission to enter the restricted area?
D. Who was given permission by you to enter the restricted area?
Answer: B. By whom were you permitted to enter the restricted area?
Q9. Pick out the suitable word
The committee's decision was based on ______ evidence rather than speculation.
A. tangible
B. imaginary
C. ambiguous
D. fictitious
Answer: A. tangible
Q10. Pick out the correct indirect speech for the sentence below: The instructor said to the cadets, "Do not leave your positions until I return."
A. The instructor told the cadets that they should not leave their positions until he returned.
B. The instructor ordered the cadets not to leave their positions until he returned.
C. The instructor said that the cadets should not leave their positions until he returned.
D. The instructor told the cadets not to leave their positions until he returns.
Answer: B. The instructor ordered the cadets not to leave their positions until he returned.
Q11. Pick the word that is nearest in meaning to ‘Meticulous’.
A. Careless
B. Thorough
C. Impulsive
D. Casual
Answer: B. Thorough
Q12. Select the correct sentence.
A. No sooner the meeting began than the alarm sounded.
B. No sooner had the meeting begun when the alarm sounded.
C. No sooner had the meeting begun than the alarm sounded.
D. No sooner did the meeting begin than the alarm sounded.
Answer: C. No sooner had the meeting begun than the alarm sounded.
Q13. Choose the correct one-word substitution:
A person who deliberately sets fire to the property of others is called a:
A. Arsonist
B. Extortionist
C. Vandal
D. Saboteur
Answer: A. Arsonist
Q14. Choose the antonym of “Lucid”.
A. Clear
B. Coherent
C. Obscure
D. Explicit
Answer: C. Obscure
Q15. Fill in the blank:
If the authorities had reacted swiftly, the situation ______ worse.
A. would not become
B. would not have become
C. will not become
D. had not become
Answer: B. would not have become
Q16. Select the appropriate meaning of the phrase “A blessing in disguise”.
A. Something that seems good but is actually bad
B. Something that seems bad but turns out to be good
C. A reward that appears unexpectedly
D. An opportunity hidden that is always successful
Answer: B. Something that seems bad but turns out to be good
Q17. Select the correct order of the sentence.
P. Despite several obstacles
Q. the team completed
R. the mission successfully
S. within the allotted time
A. Q-R-S-P
B. P-Q-R-S
C. Q-P-S-R
D. R-Q-P-S
Answer: B. P-Q-R-S
Q18. Pick out the word that best replaces the underlined word.
The commander gave a speech intended to encourage the troops before the operation.
A. provocative
B. motivational
C. derogatory
D. evasive
Answer: B. motivational
Q19. Identify the part having an error:
The information provided by the intelligence agencies was carefully examined by the authorities.
A. The information provided
B. by the intelligence agencies
C. were carefully examined
D. by the authorities
Answer: C. were carefully examined
Q20. Pick the word closest to the meaning of “Deter”.
A. Encourage
B. Prevent
C. Permit
D. Accelerate
Answer: B. Prevent
General Knowledge (20 Questions)
Q21. A body is moving with uniform velocity. Which of the following
statements is true?
A. A net force must be acting on it
B. Its acceleration is zero
C. Its momentum must be zero
D. Its kinetic energy must be zero
Answer: B. Its acceleration is zero
Q22. If the resistance of a conductor remains constant and the potential difference across it is doubled, the current will:
A. become half
B. remain unchanged
C. become double
D. become four times
Answer: C. become double
Q23. The phenomenon responsible for the blue appearance of the sky is
A. Reflection
B. Refraction
C. Scattering of light
D. Dispersion
Answer: C. Scattering of light
Q24. Which one of the following is a chemical change?
A. Melting of ice
B. Boiling of water
C. Rusting of iron
D. Dissolution of sugar in water
Answer. C. Rusting of iron
Q25. Which gas is released when dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with zinc?
A. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Chlorine
Answer. B. Hydrogen
Q26. Which of the following structures of a cell is mainly responsible for controlling its activity?
A. Ribosome
B. Mitochondria
C. Nucleus
D. Cytoplasm
Answer: C. Nucleus
Q27. The Permanent Settlement of Bengal was introduced in 1793 by:
A. Lord Wellesley
B. Lord Cornwallis
C. Lord Dalhousie
D. Lord Curzon
Answer: B. Lord Cornwallis
Q28. What was the main goal of the Non-Cooperation Movement initiated in 1920?
A. call for immediate independence through military action
B. withdraw Indians' support from British institutions
C. create the Constituent Assembly
D. oppose the partition of Bengal
Answer: B. withdraw Indians' support from British institutions
Q29. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is Equality before Law provided?
A. Article 14
B. Article 17
C. Article 19
D. Article 21
Answer: A. Article 14
Q30. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
A. Ganga
B. Yamuna
C. Narmada
D. Brahmaputra
Answer: C. Narmada
Q31. Which of the following is responsible for the reversal of wind direction between summer and winter over the Indian subcontinent?
A. Ocean currents
B. Seasonal differences in heating of land and sea
C. Rotation of the Moon
D. Earth's magnetic field
Answer: B. Seasonal differences in heating of land and sea
Q32. Which of the following types of soil is best suited for cotton cultivation?
A. Laterite soil
B. Black soil
C. Alluvial soil
D. Mountain soil
Answer: B. Black soil
Q33. In the human body, haemoglobin is chiefly concerned with:
A. digestion of proteins
B. transport of oxygen
C. production of antibodies
D. regulation of body temperature
Answer: B. transport of oxygen
Q34. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A. Insulin — Thyroid gland
B. Adrenaline — Adrenal glands
C. Thyroxine — Pancreas
D. Bile — Kidney
Answer: B. Adrenaline — Adrenal glands
Q35. The apparent motion of a planet or a satellite moving backwards instead of the normal motion is called
A. Parallax
B. Retrograde motion
C. Revolution
D. Precession
Answer: B. Retrograde motion
Q36. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments lowered the voting age in India from 21 years to 18 years?
A. 42nd Amendment
B. 44th Amendment
C. 61st Amendment
D. 73rd Amendment
Answer: C. 61st Amendment
Q37. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Methane
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Nitrogen
Answer: D. Nitrogen
Q38. In a transformer, the main purpose of increasing the number of turns in the secondary coil compared with the primary coil is to:
A. decrease voltage
B. Increase voltage
C. Increase resistance only
D. Convert AC into DC
Answer: B. Increase voltage
Q39. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
A. Siachen Glacier — Karakoram Range
B. Nathula Pass — Sikkim
C. Zoji La — Jammu and Kashmir
D. Bomdi La — Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: C. Zoji La — Jammu and Kashmir
Q40. Which institution is primarily responsible for conducting the NDA examination?
A. Staff Selection Commission
B. Union Public Service Commission
C. National Testing Agency
D. Ministry of Defence
Answer: B. Union Public Service Commission
Conclusion
The GAT section of the NDA examination requires a varied amount of preparation. Apart from developing a basic understanding of the topics, it is necessary for candidates to also practice questions that test their application of concepts and ability to differentiate between similar-sounding options.
Students appearing for NDA-2 2026 should regularly practice questions from English, Physics, Chemistry, General Science, History, Geography and Current Affairs. In addition, aspirants should also include previous years' questions in their NDA preparation, as it helps them understand the level and pattern of questions asked by UPSC.
Aspirants should attempt these questions under a time limit and analyse the questions they get wrong. The objective should not only be to increase the number of questions attempted but also to improve accuracy, elimination skills, and conceptual clarity. Consistent practice with moderate-level questions can help candidates approach the GAT paper with greater confidence.
Read more:
NDA 2 2026: Last 7 Days Revision Plan & Exam Tips
Top 100 Most Expected Questions for NDA 2 2026 Mathematics
Top 100 GAT Questions for NDA 2 2026: Preparation Tips & Free PDF
