The General Knowledge (GK) and General Studies (GS) section is an important component of the CDS written examination. It evaluates an aspirant's awareness about India and the world, as well as his/her understanding of various academic disciplines, viz, History, Geography, Polity, Economy, Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Science and Technology, and Defence.
For CDS-2 2026, aspirants need to not only practice factual questions but also work on questions that test conceptual understanding. The paper can contain questions from static subjects as well as the latest happenings. Regular revisions and solving previous years' question papers can acquaint the candidates with the pattern and type of questions asked.
We bring before our readers 40 moderate level of difficulty GK/GS questions divided into 20 GK and 20 General Science questions, to aid aspirants in their preparations.
GK – 20 Questions
Q1. Which of the following Acts is the first step taken towards the establishment of representative institutions in British India?
A. Government of India Act, 1858
B. Indian Councils Act, 1861
C. Indian Councils Act, 1909
D. Government of India Act, 1919
Answer: B. Indian Councils Act, 1861
Q2. The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946, was primarily related to:
A. Introduction of provincial autonomy
B. Framing of the Constitution of India
C. Implementation of separate electorate
D. Termination of Civil Disobedience Movement
Answer: B. Framing of the Constitution of India
Q3. Who among the following freedom fighters founded the Servants of India Society?
A. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C. Dadabhai Naoroji
D. Surendranath Banerjee
Answer: A. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Q4. The Indian Constitution’s Directive Principles of State Policy were mainly inspired by the Constitution of:
A. Canada
B. Ireland
C. Australia
D. France
Answer: B. Ireland
Q5. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a federal system?
A. Single source of political authority
B. Division of powers between different levels of government
C. Complete absence of a written Constitution
D. Supremacy of the executive over the judiciary
Answer: B. Division of powers between different levels of government
Q6. The jurisdiction of judicial review in India mainly helps the judiciary to
A. Make laws for Parliament
B. Review the constitutional validity of laws
C. Elect the Prime Minister
D. Alter the Constitution
Ans. B. Review the constitutional validity of laws.
Q7. Which one of the following rivers is called the “Sorrow of Bihar” due to its frequent floods causing damage?
A. Son
B. Kosi
C. Gandak
D. Damodar
Ans. B. Kosi.
Q8. Which of the following aspects most influences the climate of the place?
A. Latitude
B. Mineral wealth
C. Soil color
D. Population
Ans. A. Latitude.
Q9. Where do the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats meet?
A. Aravalli Hills
B. Nilgiri Hills
C. Khasi Hills
D. Satpura Range
Ans. B. Nilgiri Hills.
Q10. Which one of the following types of rainfall is caused by the air cooling on mountain slopes?
A. Cyclonic
B. Convectional
C. Orographic
D. Frontal
Ans. C. Orographic.
Q11. Which of the following industries contributes directly to the production of goods and services through agriculture and mining?
A. Primary sector
B. Secondary sector
C. Tertiary sector
D. Quaternary sector
Answer: A. Primary sector
Q12. Inflation means:
A. Continuous decrease in general price level
B. Sustained increase in general price level
C. Decrease in national income
D. Increase in unemployment alone
Answer: B. Sustained increase in general price level
Q13. Which among the following institutions regulates the monetary policy in India?
A. Ministry of Finance
B. Reserve Bank of India
C. NITI Aayog
D. Finance Commission
Answer: B. Reserve Bank of India
Q14. Which among the following is a direct tax in India?
A. GST
B. Customs duty
C. Income tax
D. Excise duty
Answer: C. Income tax
Q15. The headquarters of the International Monetary Fund is situated at:
A. Geneva
B. Washington, D.C.
C. New York
D. Paris
Answer: B. Washington, D.C.
Q16. Which strait separates India and Sri Lanka?
A. Malacca Strait
B. Palk Strait
C. Bering Strait
D. Hormuz Strait
Answer: B. Palk Strait
Q17. The line that shows the boundary between two air masses of dissimilar characteristics is called
A. Isobar
B. Front
C. Contour
D. Isohyet
Answer: B. Front
Q18. Which of the following is correctly matched?
A. Operation Flood — Green Revolution
B. Operation Flood — White Revolution
C. Operation Blue Star — White Revolution
D. Operation Flood — Blue Revolution
Answer: B. Operation Flood — White Revolution
Q19. The Siachen Glacier is located in
A. Aravalli Range
B. Karakoram Range
C. Vindhya Range
D. Western Ghats
Answer: B. Karakoram Range
Q20. Which of the following is the main organ of the United Nations that is responsible for the maintenance of international peace and security?
A. General Assembly
B. Security Council
C. International Court of Justice
D. Economic and Social Council
Answer: B. Security Council
General Science (20 Questions)
Q21. When a person stands on a scale in a lift, he finds himself to be heavier when the lift:
A. moves down with a constant speed
B. accelerates upward
C. moves up with a constant speed
D. is at rest
Answer: B. accelerates upward
Q22. The law that establishes a relationship between current, voltage, and resistance in an electrical circuit is:
A. Faraday’s law
B. Ohm’s law
C. Newton’s law
D. Coulomb’s law
Answer: B. Ohm’s law
Q23. Domestic appliances are usually connected in a parallel combination with the domestic circuit because:
A. the same current is passed through all the appliances
B. each appliance can be operated independently
C. it increases the resistance of the circuit
D. it stops the flow of current in the circuit
Answer: B. Each appliance can be operated independently
Q24. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the highest frequency?
A. Radio waves
B. Microwaves
C. Visible light
D. Gamma rays
Answer: D. Gamma rays
Q25. A convex lens is used in:
A. magnifying glasses
B. rear-view mirrors
C. periscopes only
D. vehicle side mirrors
Answer: A. magnifying glasses
Q26. Which principle explains the working of a hydraulic lift?
A. Pascal's law
B. Archimedes' principle
C. Bernoulli's theorem
D. Hooke's law
Answer: A. Pascal's law
Q27. Which of the following elements has the highest tendency to attract electrons in a chemical bond?
A. Sodium
B. Magnesium
C. Fluorine
D. Potassium
Answer: C. Fluorine
Q28. When an acid reacts with a carbonate, which gas is generally released?
A. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Nitrogen
Answer: C. Carbon dioxide
Q29. Which of the following is an example of an oxidation reaction?
A. Removal of oxygen from a compound
B. Addition of oxygen to a substance
C. Addition of hydrogen to a substance
D. Removal of electrons from an electrolyte only
Answer: B. Addition of oxygen to a substance
Q30. Stainless steel is primarily an alloy of iron with:
A. Copper and zinc
B. Chromium and usually nickel
C. Aluminium and magnesium
D. Lead and tin
Answer: B. Chromium and usually nickel
Q31. The organelle that is called the “powerhouse of the cell” is
A. Ribosome
B. Nucleus
C. Mitochondria
D. Golgi apparatus
Answer: C. Mitochondria
Q32. Which part of the brain is responsible for maintaining posture and balance?
A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Medulla
D. Hypothalamus
Answer: B. Cerebellum
Q33. The hormone that plays a significant role in controlling blood glucose concentration is
A. Thyroxine
B. Insulin
C. Adrenaline
D. Estrogen
Answer: B. Insulin
Q34. Which deficiency of a nutrient can lead to scurvy?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin K
Answer: C. Vitamin C
Q35. The conversion process of light energy into chemical energy in the form of carbohydrates is known as
A. Respiration
B. Transpiration
C. Photosynthesis
D. Fermentation
Answer: C. Photosynthesis
Q36. The blood group that is known as a universal blood donor for blood transfusion is
A. AB positive
B. A positive
C. O negative
D. B negative
Answer: C. O negative
Q37. One of the microorganisms commonly used in bread and alcohol production is
A. Bacteria
B. Yeast
C. Algae
D. Protozoa
Answer: B. Yeast
Q38. The disease that is caused by protozoan parasites and transmitted by female Anopheles mosquitoes is
A. Dengue
B. Malaria
C. Cholera
D. Typhoid
Answer: B. Malaria
Q39. The gas mainly responsible for the enhanced greenhouse effect due to human activities is
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Helium
Answer: C. Carbon dioxide
Q40. The basic principle behind nuclear fission is
A. Combining two light nuclei to form a heavier nucleus
B. Splitting a heavy nucleus into smaller nuclei with the release of energy
C. Conversion of chemical energy into nuclear energy
D. Conversion of electricity directly into matter
Answer: B. Splitting a heavy nucleus into smaller nuclei with the release of energy
Conclusion
A comprehensive approach to preparing for the GK/GS section of the CDS exam is necessary since questions can be asked on a variety of subjects. Aspirants need to maintain a balance between static GK, conceptual GS, and current affairs. Simply memorizing isolated facts may not be sufficient if questions are framed around concepts or related facts.
For CDS-2 2026, it is important for aspirants to revise important topics from History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Physics, Chemistry, and Biology while also staying updated with major happenings at the national and international levels.
Previous-year papers should play an important role in the preparation as they can provide an insight into the type and level of difficulty of questions that can be asked in the CDS examination.
Aspirants should practice by solving questions within a fixed time, analyzing incorrect answers, and revising the concepts associated with them. This 40-question set can be helpful in testing their preparation and identifying areas that need improvement.
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Top 100 General Knowledge Questions for CDS 2 2026: Preparation Tips & Free PDF
